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Category:Software distributionQ:<\/p>\n

Inconsistent proof of an equation involving multiple integrals<\/p>\n

Let $F(z)=\\int_0^z f(t)\\,\\mathrm{d}t$, where $f$ is a complex polynomial such that $f(0)=\\frac{1}{4}$ and $f(\\mathrm{i})=\\mathrm{i}$
\nI have to show that $F(\\mathrm{i})=-\\mathrm{i}$. I did it like this:
\n$F(z)=\\int_0^z f(t)\\,\\mathrm{d}t$
\n$F(\\mathrm{i})=\\int_0^\\mathrm{i}f(t)\\,\\mathrm{d}t+\\int_\\mathrm{i}^\\mathrm{i}f(t)\\,\\mathrm{d}t$
\n$F(\\mathrm{i})=\\int_0^\\mathrm{i}\\overline{f(\\mathrm{i})}+f(\\mathrm{i})\\,\\mathrm{d}t$
\n$F(\\mathrm{i})=2\\mathrm{i}+\\overline{\\mathrm{i}}=\\mathrm{i}-\\mathrm{i}=0$
\nI can see that $F(\\mathrm{i})=\\mathrm{i}$ by considering the function $g(t)=t$, which is such that $g(0)=0$ and $g(\\mathrm{i})=\\mathrm{i}$
\nBut what I don’t understand is why I can get $F(\\mathrm{i})=\\mathrm{i}$ for $F(z)=\\int_0^z f(t)\\,\\mathrm{d}t$ and then $F(\\mathrm{i})=-\\mathrm{i}$ for $F(z)=\\int_0^\\mathrm{i}f(t)\\,\\mathrm{d}t+\\int_\\mathrm{i}^\\mathrm{i}f(t)\\,\\mathrm{d}t$<\/p>\n

A:<\/p>\n

The two integrals are different.
\nThe first one is a linear integral starting
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